aw at ice-sa
Oct 10, 2008, 5:27 AM
Post #2 of 3
(93 views)
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export[at]hope.cz wrote:
> This problem:
>
> Client with IPaddress 1 opens a webpage( starts CGI script
> on Apache1.)
> (Here on Apache1 is running an application/CGI script)
> That script will fetch a page from Apache2.
How does it fetch it ?
>
> So far so easy but I need the Client's IPaddress 1 to be recorded in log of Apache 2 NOT
> Apache1's address.
>
> Something like this
>
>
> Client's IPaddress 1 Client's IPaddress 1
>
> Client ------------------>Apache1 ------------>Apache2
>
> Apache1's addreess
>
>
> Is this possible? Or must I use another proxy?
>
I guess the evident answer is "no", unless you give some more details of
what you are trying to do, and maybe why.
For Apache2, the call comes from Apache1, so that is the address it will
record. How would it know from which IP address Apache1 was called ?
Unless you Apache1 cgi-bin script passes the original IP address somehow
in its call to Apache2, and on Apache2 something picks up that
argument/header and records it in the log.
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